Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 17.06.2025 16:12
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What do you think of Obito Uchiha?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Why does it matter so much to atheists that God doesn't exist?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.